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abdominal distension

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on abdominal distension.

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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric clinic by their parents due to a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension, poor appetite, and occasional constipation. On physical examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, crossing the midline. Vital signs are stable. Initial blood tests, including full blood count and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations represents the most appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding further management?

A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
C. Repeat abdominal CT scan in three months
D. Urine catecholamine metabolites (VMA and HVA)
E. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, distension, and obstipation for the past 3 days. He reports a history of multiple abdominal surgeries for adhesions. His vital signs are: HR 110 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg, RR 22 breaths/min, SpO2 97% on room air, and temperature 37.8°C. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with high-pitched bowel sounds. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed, as shown. Given the clinical context and the findings on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next imaging investigation to guide management?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
B. Repeat plain abdominal X-ray in 6 hours
C. MRI abdomen
D. Barium enema
E. Upper GI series with small bowel follow-through
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of increasing abdominal bloating and occasional pelvic discomfort. She reports normal menstrual cycles and no weight loss or changes in bowel habits. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild abdominal distension. Routine blood tests, including CA-125, are within normal limits. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, with a relevant axial image shown. Considering the clinical presentation, the normal CA-125 level, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Reassurance and discharge with advice to return if symptoms worsen.
B. Referral to a gynaecological oncologist for further assessment.
C. Repeat CT scan in 3 months to monitor size and characteristics.
D. Laparoscopic cystectomy for definitive diagnosis and treatment.
E. Initiate a trial of oral contraceptive pills to reduce cyst size.
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is investigated for a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension and intermittent pain. On examination, a firm, non-tender mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Initial blood tests reveal mild anaemia. Vital signs are stable. The provided image was obtained as part of the diagnostic evaluation. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated, which of the following investigations is most crucial for determining the extent of disease spread, a key factor in guiding subsequent management decisions for this paediatric patient?

A. 123I-MIBG scintigraphy
B. Urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) levels
C. MYCN gene amplification testing
D. Whole-body PET-CT scan
E. Bone marrow biopsy
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old presents with a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension and intermittent pain. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender mass in the upper abdomen. Blood tests show mild anaemia. Vitals are stable. This CT scan was performed as part of the initial workup. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following investigations is the most critical next step for accurate staging and risk stratification to guide appropriate management in this paediatric patient?

A. Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy
B. Repeat CT scan of the abdomen in 3 months
C. Urgent surgical resection of the mass
D. Genetic testing for WT1 gene mutation
E. Initiation of empirical chemotherapy
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of increasing abdominal distension, bloating, and a sensation of early fullness after eating. She has also noticed a gradual increase in her waist circumference and reports feeling more fatigued than usual. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia, managed with metformin and atorvastatin respectively. She is post-menopausal, having completed menopause 10 years ago. On physical examination, her vital signs are stable: blood pressure 128/78 mmHg, heart rate 68 bpm, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.6°C. Abdominal examination reveals moderate distension and a firm, irregular mass is palpable extending from the pelvis into the lower abdomen. Bowel sounds are present and normal. A recent transvaginal ultrasound was inconclusive due to the size of the mass, prompting a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, an axial image from which is shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Arrange for a fine needle aspiration biopsy of the mass under CT guidance.
B. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed pelvic inflammatory disease.
C. Schedule a follow-up CT scan in 3 months to monitor for changes in the mass size and appearance.
D. Referral to a gynaecological oncologist and measurement of serum CA-125.
E. Referral to a general surgeon for urgent exploratory laparotomy.
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-week history of increasing abdominal distension, intermittent pain, and decreased activity. Parents also report occasional flushing episodes and unexplained fevers. On examination, a large, firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, extending across the midline. Vital signs are stable, and routine blood tests, including full blood count, electrolytes, and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the findings demonstrated in the image and the clinical presentation, which of the following investigations is most critical for accurate staging and risk stratification in this likely diagnosis?

A. Serum alpha-fetoprotein and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels
B. Upper gastrointestinal series with small bowel follow-through
C. Iodine-123 metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan
D. Renal biopsy
E. Colonoscopy
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He reports no bowel movements for 3 days. His abdomen is distended and tender. An X-ray is performed. Given the findings, what is the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A. Hernia
B. Volvulus
C. Adhesions from prior surgery
D. Intussusception
E. Diverticulitis
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old presents with abdominal distension and back pain for 2 months. Exam reveals a firm, fixed abdominal mass. Vitals are normal. An abdominal CT is performed (axial view shown). Which lab finding would MOST strongly support the suspected diagnosis?

A. Elevated urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
B. Elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D. Elevated urine urobilinogen
E. Elevated serum amylase
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Contrast-enhanced ultrasound of encephaloid hepatocellular carcinoma
Image by R. Badea, Simona Ioanitescu CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with new onset jaundice and abdominal distension. Ascites is confirmed on examination. The patient denies alcohol use. An ultrasound with contrast is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Referral for liver transplant evaluation
B. Order a triple-phase CT scan of the abdomen
C. Initiate empiric antibiotic therapy for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
D. Administer intravenous albumin and diuretics
E. Paracentesis for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with abdominal pain, distension, and obstipation for 3 days, with a history of multiple abdominal surgeries. Vitals are HR 110, BP 110/70, T 37.8. Exam shows a distended abdomen with high-pitched bowel sounds. An upright abdominal X-ray is shown. Considering the clinical context and the imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST likely expected outcome with initial non-operative management?

A. Requirement for immediate surgical intervention
B. Resolution of symptoms within 48-72 hours
C. Spontaneous resolution within minutes of presentation
D. Need for long-term parenteral nutrition
E. Development of large bowel obstruction
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with abdominal distension, obstipation, and vomiting. He reports a history of multiple abdominal surgeries. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Barium enema
B. CT abdomen with IV contrast
C. Colonoscopy
D. Stool softeners and increased oral fluids
E. Surgical consultation
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and multiple episodes of bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool for the past 18 hours. Her past medical history includes an open appendectomy 30 years ago and a hysterectomy 10 years ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 92 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation. A plain abdominal X-ray series, including the image provided, was obtained. Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

A. Perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.
B. Arrange for an urgent contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
C. Discharge the patient home with oral analgesia and instructions to return if symptoms worsen.
D. Administer a high-dose osmotic laxative orally.
E. Proceed directly to exploratory laparotomy.
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus for 48 hours. He has a history of prior bowel resection. Examination reveals a tympanitic abdomen and tenderness to palpation. His vitals are stable. An abdominal X-ray is performed, as shown. Considering the clinical context and the radiographic findings, what is the MOST likely underlying cause of this presentation?

A. Post-surgical adhesions
B. Inflammatory bowel disease stricture
C. Volvulus
D. Hernia
E. Malignancy
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male with a history of multiple abdominal surgeries presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, distension, and obstipation for the past 3 days. His vital signs are: HR 110 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg, RR 22 breaths/min, SpO2 97% on room air, and temperature 37.8°C. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with high-pitched bowel sounds. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed, as shown. Given the clinical context and the radiographic findings, which demonstrate significant intraluminal gas accumulation proximal to the likely site of obstruction, what is the predominant source of this gas?

A. Diffusion from blood
B. Swallowed atmospheric air
C. Pancreatic enzyme activity
D. Biliary secretion
E. Bacterial fermentation
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain, distension, and obstipation, with a background of multiple abdominal surgeries. Vitals show HR 110, BP 110/70, T 37.8°C. Physical exam reveals a distended abdomen with high-pitched bowel sounds. An upright abdominal X-ray is shown. Considering the clinical findings and the radiographic appearance, which of the following potential complications is the MOST critical to evaluate for urgently?

A. Acute kidney injury
B. Severe electrolyte imbalance
C. Bowel ischaemia or strangulation
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Aspiration pneumonia
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus for 48 hours. He has a history of prior bowel resection. Examination reveals a tympanitic abdomen and tenderness to palpation. His vitals are stable. An abdominal X-ray is performed, as shown. Considering the clinical context and the radiographic findings, what is the primary purpose of inserting a nasogastric tube in this patient?

A. Obtaining a sample of gastric contents for analysis.
B. Administering oral contrast for further imaging.
C. Decompressing the dilated bowel loops and reducing vomiting.
D. Providing nutritional support to the patient.
E. Facilitating the passage of flatus.
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension, irritability, and periorbital ecchymosis. Examination reveals a firm, irregular abdominal mass. The provided image is an axial CT slice. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following biochemical markers is MOST likely to be significantly elevated?

A. Serum CA-125
B. Urinary metanephrines
C. Urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA)
D. Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
E. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus for 48 hours. He has a history of prior bowel resection. Examination reveals a tympanitic abdomen and tenderness to palpation. His vitals are stable. An abdominal X-ray is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Insert a nasogastric tube and administer intravenous fluids
B. Administer a Fleet enema
C. Order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
D. Administer oral contrast and repeat abdominal X-ray in 6 hours
E. Perform a flexible sigmoidoscopy to rule out sigmoid volvulus
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